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Botany MCQS[NEET-2021 to 2022]-Bacteriology
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1. Which of the following bacteria is not a most common bacterial pathogen causing diarrhea
Enterococcus faecalis
Shigella spp
Salmonella spp
Campylobacter spp
2. Which of the following bacteria is rarely associated with urinary tract infections?
Enterobacter spp
E.coli
Shigella spp
Proteus spp
3. Which of the following statement regarding Campylobacter jejuni is not correct?
Incubation temperature is 42•C
It is commonly cultured in antibiotic containing media
It is a normal flora of intestine
None of the above
4. Which of the following bacteria is not most important causes of acute bacterial meningitis?
Neisseria menigitidis
Haemophilus influenzae
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Streptococcus pyogens
5. Which of the following Gram negative rod is not a blood borne bacterial pathogen?
Shigella spp
Escherichia coli
Klebsiella pneumoniae
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
6. Throat culture is not useful to diagnose
Streptococcal sore throat
Pneumonia
Thrush
Diphtheria
7. Stool culture is primarily recommended when the complaint is
watery diarrhea
bloody diarrhea
for both bloody and watery diarrhea
an indication of anaerobic infection
8. Which of the following bacteria causing sexually transmitted disease can not be grown on artificial media?
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Chlamydia trachomatis
Treponema pallidum
Treponema pallidum and Chlamydia trachomatis
9. Cold agglutinin test is useful for the diagnosis of
N. menigitidis
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
H. influenzae
Cryptococcus neoformans
10. Which of the following test is not recommended for the diagnosis of Syphilis?
FTA-ABS test
MHA-TP test
Culture
VDRL test
11. A massive lesion caused by spread of Staphylococcus aureus infection (often on the neck and upper back) is called a
Carbuncle
Furuncle
Abscess
Boil
12. Scalded skin syndrome is caused by exotoxin (exfoliatins) produced by
Streptococcus pyogens
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Propionibacterium acne
Staphylococcus aureus
13. Which of the following microorganisms causes scarlet fever?
Streptococcus pyogens
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Staphylococcus aureus
Propionibacterium acne
14. The pus producing skin infections (pyoderma) can be caused by
Staphylococci
Streptococci
Corynebacteria
All of these
15. Which of the following is not the characteristics of impetigo?
Common in children
Can be caused by Staphylococcus aureus
Can be caused by Streptococcus pyogenes
Can be caused by pseudomonads
16. Burn patients often develop nosocomial infection caused by:
Streptococcus epidermis
Corynebacterium spp.
Staphylococcus aureus
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
17. The bacteria that multiply in blocked skin pores, metabolize sebum, and can lead to the development of acne are:
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Propionibacterium spp.
Serratia marcescens
Streptococcus pyogenes
18. Bacterial conjunctivitis (inflammation of the eye conjunctiva) can be caused by:
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
All of the above
19. The leading cause of preventable blindness in the world is caused by
Chlamydia trachomatis
Haemophilus influenzae
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
20. Gas gangrene is most likely associated with infection with
Staphylococcus aureus
Clostridium perfringenes
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
21. The role of bacterial capsules as virulence factors is usually related to their ability to interfere with
Antibody binding
Phagocytosis
B lymphocyte activation
Antibacterial penetration of bacterial cells
22. A mutation in DNA gyrase is likely to result in resistance to which one of the following antibiotics?
Amphotericin B
Ciprofloxacin
Penicillin
Streptomycin
23. Resistance of Staphylococcus aureus to methicillin is most often caused by
Alternation of the major target for the drug
cell membrane impermeability
decreased uptake of the antibiotic
None
24. The molecular basis for the effect of cholera toxin on duodenal mucosal cells is
Activation of adenylate Cyclase
Ribosylation of a guanosine triphosphate (GTP) binding protein.
Inactivation of a G1 protein
increased generation of cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP)
25. The synthesis of erythrogenic toxin by specific strains of group A Streptococcus is determined by a
Bacterial chromosomal gene
Specific virulence plasmid
gene carried by a lysogenic phage
Transposon
26. Which one of the following factors, released by heating a suspension of sheep erythrocytes, is required for the growth of Haemophilus Influenzae in chocolate agar ?
Coagulase
Hemolysin
Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide
Hemoglobin
27. The portion of the growth curve where a rapid growth of bacteria is observed is known as
Lag phase
Logarithmic phase
Stationary phase
Decline phase
28. The growth of bacterial population follows a geometric progression
TRUE
FALSE
None
More than one option is correct
29. In the growth equation: n= 3.3 (log10 N log10 No ), n stands for
initial population
growth constant
number of generations
total population
30. Lag phase is also known as
generation time
transitional period
period of initial adjustment
period of rapid growth
31. The generation time for E.coli is
30 minutes
26 minutes
20 minutes
10 minutes
32. During exponential phase, growth rate is
rate of doubling population
time required for population to double
reciprocal of generation time
same as generation time
33. In which of the following phase secondary metabolites are produced during growth
Lag phase
Death phase
Stationary phase
Log/Exponential phase
34. Which phase shows reproduction rate equal to the equivalent death rate?
Stationary phase
Log phase
Death phase
Lag phase
35. Which of the following is used to grow bacterial culture continuously?
Chemostat
Hemostat
Coulter-Counter
Turbidostat
36. The average size of the cells in the exponential phase is
larger than the initial size
smaller than the initial size
equal to the initial size
maybe smaller or larger than the initial size
37. Which of the following is an indirect method for measuring bacterial growth?
Both Cell mass and Cell activity
Cell activity
Cell mass
Cell count
38. Which of the following instrument is used for bacterial count?
Petroff-Hausser counting chamber
Microscope
Chemostat
Turbidostat
39. Which of the following method is used for viable count of a culture?
Plate-count method and membrane-filter count
Membrane-filter count
Plate-count method
Direct microscopic count
40. Which of the following is the relationship between optical density and cell mass?
linearly proportional
inversely proportional
exponentially proportional
not related
41. How many cells present per millilitre in a bacterial culture can make the culture turbid?
1 cell
1000 cells
1 lakh cells
107-108 cells
42. Which of the following is a direct measurement of growth?
Determination of nitrogen content
Turbidimetric methods
Measurement of a specific chemical change produced on a constituent of the medium
Determination of Dry weight of cells
43. Which of the following method is used for enumeration of bacteria in vaccines and cultures?
Microscopic Count
Membrane filter
Dry weight determination
Plate count
44. Colony-forming units per ml is the unit of
Microscopic count
Electronic enumeration
Plate count
Turbidimetric measurement
45. Isolation of pure culture refers to
separation of a single colony
introduction of inoculum
purification of culture
to grow microorganisms on a surface
46. Which of the following is not a physical method for selection of pure culture?
Heat treatment
Use of dilute media
pH of the media
Cell size and motility
47. In physical method of selection, endospore-forming bacteria can be obtained by heating the mixed culture to
60 degree C for 10 minutes
75 degree C for 10 minutes
80 degree C for 10 minutes
90 degree C for 10 minutes
48. Vibrio cholerae can grow in a medium with a pH of
8 5
5.9
3.6
3.1
49. Disease-producing species occurring in a mixed culture can be selected by taking advantage of
special carbon source
special nitrogen source
its pathogenic properties
None
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